The Licensed Veterinary Qualification Examination is an important criterion for assessing the professional level and competence of veterinary practitioners. The analysis and answers of past past papers are not only valuable materials for candidates to review, but also the key for them to understand the trend of the exam and grasp the key points. Through in-depth analysis of past past questions, candidates can more clearly understand the proposition rules of the exam and grasp the key points and difficulties of the exam. At the same time, the detailed analysis of the answers can help students understand the ideas and methods of problem solving, so as to improve the accuracy and speed of problem solving. The exam can pay attention to some special collection and release of veterinary examination questions, do questions on their **, get a quick score, successfully pass the veterinary qualification examination, and obtain a licensed veterinary qualification certificate.
The following is a collection of a year of veterinary qualification examination real questions analysis and answers, this is the basic subject questions, due to the content of more, only one subject is released, if you need other subjects, you can follow me to follow-up, or private message me, will give away all the questions for free.
Analysis and answers of past past questions of the Veterinary Licensing Examination
Foundation Subjects
a1Type questions
Instructions for answering questions
Each exam question has an A underneath it、b、c、d、eChoose one of the five alternative answers and black out the box for the corresponding letter of the question number on the answer sheet.
1 Animal epidemic prevention in the Animal Epidemic Prevention Law of the People's Republic of China does not include (c).
a. Quarantine of animals.
b. Control of animal diseases.
c. Research on animal diseases.
d. Prevention of animal diseases.
e. Quarantine of animal products.
2 The official body responsible for animal disease surveillance is (d).
a. Health authorities.
b. Veterinary authorities.
c. Animal health supervision agencies.
d. Animal disease prevention and control institutions.
e. Animal product quality and safety testing institutions.
3 In the event of a class of animal diseases, the measures to be taken do not include (b).
a. Strict disinfection of epidemic sites.
b. Culling all animals in the epidemic area.
c. Destroy the culled infected animals.
d. Delineate epidemic points, epidemic areas, and threatened areas.
e. Emergency immunization of susceptible animals in threatened areas.
4 The places that do not need to apply for the "Animal Epidemic Prevention Conditions Certificate" are (c).
a. Animal breeding farms.
b. Animal isolation places.
c. Animal trading places.
d. Animal slaughtering places.
e. Animal harmless treatment site.
5 Li plans to introduce 20 breeding pigs from County A of Province A to County B of Province B for breeding, and the agency responsible for approval is (C).
a. ** Veterinary authorities.
b. Provincial Animal Health Supervision Agency.
c. Provincial Animal Health Supervision Agency.
d. Animal health supervision agency in County A, Province A.
e. Animal health supervision agency in B county B of province B.
6 The items related to animal epidemic prevention that are prohibited from entering China are (e).
A, breeding pig B, goat embryo C, grandparent breeder D, dairy cow**.
e. Dairy cows in countries where bovine spongiform encephalopathy is endemic.
7 Situations in which a practicing veterinarian may practice between two animal clinics at the same time do not include (e).
A. First aid B. Consultation C. Support D. Invited to visit the doctor.
e. Employed in two animal diagnosis and treatment institutions at the same time.
8. The time limit for animal diagnosis and treatment institutions to report their animal diagnosis and treatment activities in the previous year to the licensing authority is (b) every year
a, before the end of January b, before the end of March.
c. Before the end of June d. Before the end of September.
e. Before the end of December.
9 The practising authority of a practising assistant veterinarian is (e).
a. Prescription in animal diagnosis and treatment activities.
b. Fill in the diagnosis form in the animal diagnosis and treatment activities.
c. Issue a quarantine certificate in animal diagnosis and treatment activities.
d. Issue certification documents related to animal diagnosis and treatment activities.
e. Assist in carrying out veterinary activities under the guidance of licensed veterinarians.
10. If an animal diagnosis and treatment institution refuses to correct any behavior, the licensing authority has the right to withdraw or cancel the animal diagnosis and treatment license (e).
a. Suspension of business for one consecutive month b. Suspension of business for three consecutive months.
c. Suspension of business for half a year d. Suspension of business for one year.
e. Suspension of business for two consecutive years.
11 The obligations of a practicing veterinarian in the course of his practice do not include (a).
a. Take culling measures for infected animals.
b. Abide by professional ethics and perform veterinary duties.
c. Comply with laws, regulations, rules and relevant management regulations.
d. Love animals and publicize animal health knowledge.
e. Engage in animal diagnosis and treatment and animal diagnosis and treatment auxiliary activities in accordance with technical operation specifications.
12 Catalogue of Zoonotic Infectious Diseases does not include (c).
A, anthrax B, bovine tuberculosis C, swine blistering disease D, swine Japanese encephalitis E, swine streptococcal disease.
13 The emergency organization system for sudden major animal epidemics does not include (c).
a. Emergency Command B. Expert Committee.
c. Animal diagnosis and treatment institutions d. Veterinary departments at all levels.
e. Animal health supervision agencies.
14 The first group of animal diseases that fall under the Catalogue of Animal Diseases of Categories I, II and III is (c).
a. Hare fever b. Toxoplasmosis.
c. Peste des Petits Ruminants d. Streptococcal disease of pigs.
E. Equine infectious anemia.
15 Measures to be taken in endemic areas where major animal outbreaks occur do not include (e).
a. Animals are prohibited from entering and leaving the epidemic area.
b. Destruction of infected animal products.
c. Culling and destroying infected animals.
d. Closing the market for animals and animal products.
E. Emergency immunization shall be carried out against the animals in the same group of infected animals.
16. The contents that must be indicated on the outer packaging label of veterinary drugs may not include (e).
a. Indications b. Main components.
c. Name of veterinary drug d. Production batch number.
e. Sales enterprise information.
17 One of the following acts violates the regulations on the use of veterinary drugs (c).
a. Do not use prohibited drugs.
b. Establish a complete medication record.
c. Use the API directly on animals.
d. Use veterinary drugs according to the provisions of the withdrawal period.
e. Animals fed with prohibited drugs shall be harmlessly treated.
18 Veterinary drugs prohibited for use in animal drinking water do not include (d).
a, barbiturate b, promethazine hydrochloride.
c, phenobarbital sodium d, salfloxacin hydrochloride.
e. Chorionic gonadotropin.
19 Veterinary drugs prohibited for use in laying hens do not include (d).
a, tetracycline tablets b, guitaromycin tablets.
c, enrofloxacin tablets d, vitamin B1 tablets.
e. Chlorphenidine hydrochloride tablets.
20 Class I animal pathogenic microorganisms (viruses) do not include (a).
a. Swine fever virus B. Foot-and-mouth disease virus.
c, swine blistering virus d, peste des petits ruminants virus.
e. Highly pathogenic avian influenza virus.
21 The basic unit of structure and function of livestock and poultry is (a).
A, cells B, tissues C, organs.
d. System e. System.
22 The sinuses commonly affected by inflammation of the nasal mucosa are (c).
A, blood sinus B, lymphatic sinus C, maxillary sinus D, coronary sinus E, venous sinus.
23 The basic structure of the joint consists of (e).
a. Joint capsule, joint cavity, articular ligament, sesamoid bone.
b. Joint capsule, joint cavity, articular cartilage, sesamoid bone.
c. Joint capsule, articular surface, articular cartilage, sesamoid bone.
d. Joint capsule, joint cavity, articular disc, articular cartilage.
e. Joint capsule, joint cavity, articular surface, articular cartilage.
24 The muscles that make up the jugular sulcus in livestock are (b).
a, pectoral and scalene muscles b, pectoralis and brachiocephalus.
c. Intercostal and pectoralis d, scalene and brachiocephalus.
E. Longissimus dorsi and pectoralis muscles.
25 Intradermal injection is the injection of a drug into (b).
A, epidermis B, dermis C, basal layer D, reticular layer E, subcutaneous tissue.
26 The most important place for gas exchange in the lungs is (a).
A, alveolar b, alveolar sac.
c, alveolar duct d, bronchioles.
e. Respiratory bronchioles.
27 The bovine kidney type belongs to (b).
a, compound kidney b, groove and multiple papillary kidney.
c. Grooved single papillary kidney d, smooth multi-papillary kidney.
e. Smooth single papillae kidney.
28 The special structure of the ovaries of horses is (c).
a, ovarian sac b, ovarian door.
c. Ovulation fossa d. Mesophobia ovarian.
e. Innate ligament of the ovaries.
29 The vein commonly used in cattle to collect blood is (b).
A, cephalic vein b, external jugular vein.
c. Internal jugular vein d, deep jugular vein.
e. Superficial jugular vein.
30 The blood of the cow's uterus** comes from (b).
a. Umbilical artery, anterior gluteal artery and ** artery.
b. Ovarian artery, umbilical artery and ** artery.
c. Ovarian artery, umbilical artery and anterior gluteal artery.
d. Ovarian artery, external iliac artery and ** artery.
e. Ovarian artery, anterior gluteal artery and ** artery.
31 Beef spleen (e).
a, sickle-shaped b, obtuse triangle.
c, tongue-shaped or boot-shaped d, thin and long band.
e. Long and flattened oval shape.
32 The thickest and longest nerve in the body is (c).
A, femoral nerve B, obturator nerve C, sciatic nerve D, anterior gluteal nerve E, posterior gluteal nerve.
33 The independent endocrine organ is (e).
A, islets B, corpus luteum C, follicle D, prostate E, parathyroid glands.
34 The large intestine of poultry is characterized by (c).
a, there is a cecum b, there is a colon.
c, there is a pair of cecums d, there is a pair of colons.
There is a pair of rectums.
35 The reproductive system of female poultry is characterized by (e).
a. The ovaries are underdeveloped.
b. The fallopian tubes are underdeveloped.
c. The ovaries are particularly developed.
d. Degeneration of the left ovaries and fallopian tubes.
E. Degeneration of the ovaries and fallopian tubes on the right side.
36 The placental type of cattle belongs to (e).
a. Blood chorionic placenta (discoid placenta).
b. Endothelial chorionic placenta (annular placenta).
c. Allantoic chorionic placenta (columnar placenta).
d. Epithelial chorionic placenta (dispersed placenta).
e. Connective chorionic placenta (villous leaf placenta).
37 Internal environmental homeostasis refers to (d).
a. The composition and physical and chemical properties remain unchanged.
b. The physical and chemical properties remain unchanged, and the composition is relatively stable.
c. The composition remains unchanged, and the physical and chemical properties are relatively stable.
d. The composition and physical and chemical properties are relatively stable.
e. The composition and physical and chemical properties are not affected by the external environment.
38 The resting potential of the cell membrane is mainly (a).
A, K+ equilibrium potential B, Na+ equilibrium potential
C, Mg+ equilibrium potential D, Ca2+ equilibrium potential
E, Fe2+ equilibrium potential.
39 The third stage of the coagulation process refers to (b).
a. Formation of thrombin.
b. Formation of fibrin.
c. Mast cells secrete heparin.
d. Platelets release urokinase.
e. Platelet tamponade vascular injury.
40 The force that causes the fluid in the capillaries to filter outward is (e).
a. Capillary blood pressure, interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure.
b. Capillary blood pressure, plasma colloidal osmotic pressure.
c. Hydrostatic pressure of tissue fluid, plasma colloidal osmotic pressure.
d. Hydrostatic pressure of tissue fluid, colloidal osmotic pressure of tissue fluid.
e. Capillary blood pressure, colloidal osmotic pressure of interstitial fluid.
41 The accommodative center that inhibits animals from inspiring too long and too deep is located in (d).
A, spinal cord B, medulla oblongata C, diencephalon D, pons E, cerebral cortex.
42 The main mode of absorption of glucose in the small intestine is (d).
a, endocytosis b, facilitation diffusion.
c. Simple diffusion d. Secondary active transport.
e. Primary active transport.
43 The basic regulatory modus operandi for maintaining a relatively constant body temperature in animals is (e).
a. Fluid regulation b. Self-regulation.
c. Autocrine regulation d. Paracrine regulation.
e. Neurohumoral regulation.
44 The main causes of neuronal excitatory postsynaptic potential generation are (c).
a, k + inflow b, k + outflow.
c, Na+ influx D, Na+ outflow.
e, cl - inflow.
45 The main organ of androgen secretion in animals is (a).
A, **B, epididymal C, vas deferens D, seminal vesicle E, prostate.
46 The term "universal energy currency" in living organisms refers to (a).
a、atp b、uip c、gtp
d、cip e、datp
47 In clinical assays, the chemical reagent commonly used to remove plasma proteins is (e).
A, acetone B, ammonium sulfate C, lead acetate D, dilute hydrochloric acid E, trichloroacetic acid.
The 48 bases that occur only in the DNA molecule are (E).
A, adenine (A) B, uracil (U).
C, guanine (g) D, cytosine (c).
E. Thymine (T).
49 The components of a biofilm that regulate its phase transition temperature are (d).
A, water B, Na+
c. Sugars d. Cholesterol.
e. Membrane proteins.
50 The inhibition of cholinesterase by organophosphate insecticides falls under (b).
a. Competitive inhibition b. Irreversible inhibition.
c. Reversible inhibition d. Non-competitive inhibition.
e. Anti-competitive inhibition.
51 The main physiological significance of glycolysis is (d).
a. Regulate the acid-base balance of the animal body.
b. Storage of phosphocreatine in animal muscles.
c. Meet most of the ATP needs of the animal body.
d. Quickly provide the required energy when the animal is hypoxic.
e. Provide lactose, a raw material for gluconeogenesis for the animal body.
52 The enzymes that catalyze the hydrolysis of fats during fat mobilization are (e).
A, thioesterase B, phospholipase.
C, lipophenol transferase D, lipoprotein lipase.
e. Hormone-sensitive lipase.
53 The main ion that maintains the osmotic pressure of the extracellular liquid crystal is (c).
a、h+ b、k+
c、na+ d、mg+
e、ca2+
54 The main substances in the liver that bind to and detoxify hydroxyl and carboxyl poisons are (e).
a, sulfuric acid b, glycine.
C, glutamine D, acetyl CoA
e. Glucuronic acid.
55 The most clinically diagnostical of animal disease development at different stages is (c).
a. Incubation period b. Prodromal period.
c. Clinical elapsed phase d. Outcome phase.
e. Termination.
56 Pigment granules in heart failure cells in animals are (e).
a, lipofuscin b, melanin.
c, bilirubin d, cytochrome.
e. Hemosiderin.
57 The organs of animals that are susceptible to hemorrhagic infarction are (c).
A, heart B, liver C, spleen D, kidney E, stomach.
58 When wounds heal, what is not an intrinsic component of granulation tissue is (d).
A, collagen fibers B, fibroblasts.
C, neutrophils D, smooth muscle cells.
e. New capillaries.
59 Certain primary diseases in animals lead to decreased levels of NAHC03 in the body, mainly due to (C).
a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Respiratory alkalosis.
c. Metabolic acidosis d. Respiratory acidosis.
e. Respiratory acidosis combined with metabolic alkalosis.
60 The substances that can cause an increase in the body temperature of homeothermic animals are (b).
a, calcium b, interleukin.
c, arginine vasopressin d, lipocorticoid protein.
-Melanocyte-stimulating hormone.
61 The ocular lesions of PSE pork caused by stressors such as long-distance transportation are characterized by (D).
a. The muscles are yellow and hardened.
b. The muscles are dark due to congestion and bleeding.
c. Muscles stiffen due to rigidity or spasm.
d. The muscles are white, soft, and oozing with juice.
e. The muscles are water-based, and they are prone to pigmentation when pickling.
62 Redness, swelling, heat, pain, and dysfunction refer to (c).
a. The nature of inflammation.
b. The basic process of inflammation.
c. The main manifestations of local inflammation.
d. Systemic response of the body during inflammation.
e. Basic pathological changes in the local inflammation.
63 Catarrhal inflammation often occurs in (c).
A, muscle B, **C, mucosa D, serous E, parenchymal organs.
64 The main features of sepsis are (e).
a. Pyogenic bacteria appear in the blood.
b. Multiple abscesses on the body surface.
c. Leukocytosis in the blood.
d. Sick animals continue to flow bloody pus from their nostrils.
e. A large number of pyogenic bacteria and their toxins appear in the blood.
65 One of the characteristics of benign tumors is (b).
a. Easy to transfer b. Small atypia.
c. Large atypia d. Fast growth rate.
e. Common nuclear phases.
66 The late histological lesions of cirrhosis are characterized by (d).
a. Hepatic edema.
b. Hepatic sinusoidal dilation and congestion.
c. A large number of hepatocytes are necrosis.
d. Pseudolobular formation and fibrosis.
e. The bile duct epithelium is papillary.
67 In the case of acute swine erysipelas, the lesions of the spleen are (a).
a. Acute splenitis b. Chronic splenitis.
c. Purulent splenitis d. Necrotizing splenitis.
e. Hemorrhagic infarction.
68 When intramuneous sulfonamides are administered to dogs, the purpose of concomitant use of NAHC03 is (D).
a. Increase antibacterial effect.
b. Accelerate the absorption of drugs.
c. Accelerate the metabolism of drugs.
d. Prevent the formation of crystalluria.
e. Prevent the rapid excretion of drugs.
69 When using ** dose, the occurrence of adverse reactions unrelated to the purpose of the drug refers to (a) of the drug
a, b, reactive.
c. Toxic effects d. Secondary reactions.
e. Specific heterogeneous reactions.
70 The mechanism of antimicrobial action of tetracyclines is inhibition (b).
a. Synthesis of bacterial folic acid.
b. Synthesis of bacterial proteins.
c. Synthesis of bacterial cell wall.
d. Permeability of bacterial cell membranes.
Synthesis of bacterial DNA gyrase.
71 Antibiotics** In severe animal infections, the purpose of adjuvant glucocorticoids is (d).
a. Enhance the body's immune function.
b. Enhance the antibacterial effect of antibiotics.
c. Prolong the action time of antibiotics.
d. Control the body's excessive inflammatory response.
e. Antagonistic antibiotics of certain ***
72 Epinephrine is suitable for (b) of the animal
a. Arrhythmia b. Cardiac arrest.
c. Acute heart failure d. Chronic heart failure.
e. Congestive heart failure.
73 The drugs indicated for topical anesthesia are (a).
a, tetracaine b, caffeine.
c, pentobarbital d, procaine.
e. Sodium thiopental.
74 The pharmacological effects of fluorinic melofamine do not include (b).
A, antipyretic B, sedative C, anti-inflammatory D, analgesic E, antirheumatic.
75 The drugs that produce an antiasthmatic effect by relaxing the bronchial smooth muscles are (a).
A, aminophylline b, ammonium chloride c, potassium iodide d, codeine e, pentoverin.
76 The most commonly used inhalation in clinical practice is (b).
a, propofol b, isoflurane.
c. Chloral hydrate d, sodium thiopental.
e. Procaine.
77 Drugs with anticoccidial effects are (c).
A, ivermectin B, doxycycline.
C, monensin D, spectinomycin.
e. Tylosin.
78 Turpentine can be used for (d) when taken internally
a. Antidiarrheal b. Antiemetic.
c. Neutralize gastric acid d. Stop fermentation and strengthen the stomach.
e. Relieve gastrointestinal spasms.
b1Type questions
Instructions for answering questions
Several sets of questions are provided below, each of which is listed at the top of the questionabcdeFive alternative answers, choose one of the answers that most closely correspond to the question and black out the box for the corresponding letter of the question number on the answer sheet. A chosen answer may be selected once, multiple times, or not at all.
79-80 questions with alternate answers).
A, main cells B, parietal cells.
C, silver affinity cells D, neck mucus cells.
e. Endocrine cells.
79 The cells in the fundic glands that secrete hydrochloric acid are (b).
80 The cells in the fundic glands that can secrete pepsinogen are (a).
8l-82 questions with alternative answers).
a, urethral bulb b, seminal vesicle glands.
c, prostate d, bulbourethral gland.
e. Ampulla of the vas deferens.
The accessory gonads of 8L dogs have only (C).
82 The paragonads of horses in the form of pear-shaped sacs are called (b).
Questions 83-85 share alternate answers).
a, corticosterone b, insulin.
c, aldosterone d, thyroxine.
e. Parathyroid hormone.
83 The main hormones that promote the body's thermogenesis are (d).
84 The main hormones that promote the body's "calcium and phosphorus removal" are (e).
85 The main hormones that promote the body's "sodium and potassium removal" are (c).
Questions 86-88 share alternate answers).
a, succinic acid b, pyruvate.
c, malic acid d, oxaloacetate.
-Ketoglutarate.
86 Receiving amino groups that can be directly converted to glutamic acid is (e).
87 Accepting amino groups that can be directly converted to alanine is (b).
88 Receiving amino groups that can be directly converted to aspartic acid are (d).
89-90 questions with alternate answers).
a, streptococcus b, swine fever virus.
C. Salt poisoning D. Vitamin D deficiency.
Vitamin E-selenium deficiency.
89 ** Causing cerebellar malacia in chickens is (e).
90 The ** causes purulent encephalitis in pigs is (a).
Questions 91-92).
a. Lymphocytes b. Monocytes.
c, neutrophils d, eosinophils.
E. Basophils.
91 Exudative inflammatory cells in viral encephalitis are predominantly (a).
92 In parasitic inflammation or reactive inflammation, the leukocytes that cause exudation are mainly (d).
Questions 93-95 share alternate answers).
a, chicken coccidiosis b, **mycosis.
c. Anaerobic bacteria infection d. Mycoplasma suis pneumonia.
e. Actinobacillus sucis pleuropneumonia.
93 Metronidazole is indicated for ** c).
94 Cefiofur is suitable for ** e).
95 Griseoxin for **b).
a2Type questions
Instructions for answering questions
Each question is presented as a small case, which is found underneathabcdeChoose one of the five alternative answers and black out the box for the corresponding letter of the question number on the answer sheet.
96 A dog was dehydrated due to diarrhea, and an intern in a veterinary outpatient clinic mistakenly gave the sick dog an excessive amount of water for injection intravenously, which led to an increase in urine output.
Analyze the physiological mechanism of the increased urine output in the dog is (c).
a. Intracapsular pressure decreases.
b. Decreased renal blood flow.
c. Plasma colloidal osmotic pressure decreases.
d. Plasma crystal osmotic pressure decreases.
e. Glomerular capillary blood pressure decreases.
97 8-month-old sows, due to suspicion of bacterial pneumonia, intramuscular injection of penicillin and streptomycin** for 3 days, the efficacy is not good, and the results are confirmed.
Laboratory diagnosis of mycoplasma pneumonia co-infection with Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae should be changed to (c).
A, neomycin B, cefotaxifur.
c, tymycin d, florfenicol.
e, demenidazole.
a3/a4Type questions
Instructions for answering questions
A number of cases are provided below, each with a number of questions. Based on the information provided in the case, select one of the best answers from the five alternative answers (A, B, C, D, and E) at the bottom of each question question, and black out the box for the corresponding letter of the corresponding question number on the answer sheet.
98-100 questions with a common stem).
A cow has been sick for a long time, and the clinical manifestations are cough, dyspnea, emaciation and anemia. Postmortem microscopic examination reveals a variety of organ groups.
Tissues, especially in the lungs, lymph nodes and breasts, have scattered nodular lesions of different sizes, and the incision surface is like tofu residue and texture.
Fluffy off-white or yellowish-white substance.
98 The tofu-like pathological changes belong to (c).
a. Waxy necrosis b. Wet necrosis.
c. Caseous necrosis d. Liquefied necrosis.
e. Anemia infarction.
99 The cow's disease is most likely to be (a).
a. Bovine tuberculosis b. Bovine actinomycosis.
c, bovine pasteurosis d, bovine infectious rhinotracheitis.
E. Infectious bovine pleuropneumonia.
100 Histopathological examination was performed, and the tofu residue-like substance was (e).
a. Granulation tissue.
b. Parasitic nodules.
c. Neutrophil mass.
d. Eosinophil mass.
e. Necrosis without amorphous structure.
The test is over! For candidates, the value of past question analysis and answers is not only in the preparation stage. In the review process, through repeated practice and in-depth study of past questions, candidates can gradually develop the ability to comprehensively apply veterinary professional knowledge and improve clinical diagnosis and skills. After the exam, these past questions can also be used as a tool for candidates to self-evaluate, help them discover their shortcomings in knowledge mastery and problem-solving skills, and provide guidance for future study and work.
In short, the analysis and answers of past past questions of the Veterinary Licensing Examination have important reference value for candidates. By carefully studying and using these materials, candidates can not only improve their preparation efficiency, but also improve their professional ability and level in an all-round way.